ONE BAPTISM

One Baptism

The doctrine of baptisms is among the elementary doctrine of Christ and it only takes a bit of honesty and common sense or reason to see, infer or conclude that the one baptism of Ephesians 4:5 is water baptism,  the one Christ, the one Lord, commanded in the great commission and that would last till the end of the world. Matthew 28:18-20; Mark 16:15-16

 First, and the most obvious, those who practice water baptism and profess that there is a spiritual baptism that all believers experience before water baptism, have TWO baptisms and are in contradiction with the truth. Second, those who profess to experience baptism with the Holy Spirit and a spiritual baptism before water baptism are arguing for THREE baptism, far from the ONE BAPTISM; of course, the real and only occasions where the Spirit came were evidenced by manifestations of the Spirit. Acts 10:45-46; 11:15-16

So, the one faith of which the one Spirit is author, REVEALS that there is ONE BAPTISM in the one body, the church. 1 Corinthians 12:7-13

God’s Universal doctrine on marriage and Unauthorized Sex

God’s Universal  and Unchanging doctrine on marriage and Unauthorized Sex

Married via a human declaration or Divine Decree?

See that no one seduces you through (“Evolving”) philosophy, worldly wisdom, the tradition of men, and rudiments of the world. Colossians 2:8

There are only two possible approaches when dealing with the concept of marriage, but only one of them can be taught using revelation consistently without contradiction. One option, it is from heaven, revealed by God and the other option, it is from men, established by human non- inspired regulations, in which case there would be no need to go to the inspired source.  This fact alone avoids a lot of confusion,
when defined and accepted.   Most people don’t really mean what they say when dealing with this topic. They are quick to profess that marriage is from heaven, given by inspiration of the Holy Spirit and before you know it, they are arguing contrariwise in favor of some evolving human procedure.   

They keep on trying to make God’s universal doctrine line up with human national and evolving regulations.

The bible clearly reveals that sex with a prostitute is fornication or unauthorized sexual intercourse (sin against one’s own body, one body with her ) , though they might be singles, there is no purpose or commitment to form a new house or family as “ leave father and mother ” suggests or implies, this case is clearly not the scenario found in Matthew 19:4-6: 1 Corinthians 7:2, that is fornication or illicit or unauthorized sex. On the other hand, in 1 Corinthians 5:1 the Scripture also reveals that fornication occurred when someone had “his father’s woman”, again, we can see that it is not authorized because it is against “let every man  have his own woman, and let every woman have her own man.” So, God authorized every man to have his own woman, and every woman to have her own man, to avoid fornication, so, what avoids fornication?  The two passages cited above are in complete harmony, one reveals the authority and the other the procedure. 

In order to have his own woman a man is authorized to “leave father and mother, cleave to his woman and become one flesh for life”.

Living together with the intent or commitment to be one flesh for life without both being single is “πορνεια” or fornication, and no pre or post ever- evolving national protocol will change the sinful nature of such relationships. It remains “πορνεια”, illicit or illegal SEX, with or without civil law protocols, by what law? Civil law? NO, but by the inspired law of Christ. “πορνεια” has nothing whatsoever to do with subjection to civil laws, “πορνεια” IS NOT INSUBORDINATION TO Romans 131-5 and parallel passages, a man made marriage contract does not determine which physical relationship is “πορνεια”, that is quite obvious, as there are many relations in complete harmony with human protocols, but they remain “πορνεια” nonetheless.   Do you believe that Herod and Herodias and the other fornicator of 1 Corinthians 5 were guilty of insubordination to civil authorities or procedures, or cultural or societal protocols? There was an assumed marriage contract, it was supposedly in complete harmony with civil procedure, BUT IT STILL REMAINS “πορνεια” (sin against one’s own body), why is that the case? WHAT MAKES IT πορνεια? what avoids πορνεια? 
Failure to comply with Divine criteria or conditions, God ONLY authorized SINGLES, implied by “leave father and mother” which also implies the purpose and intention, change of roles, that is why we read “shall cleave to his woman” ( not the case of a prostitute, not the case of another man’s woman, but his own woman as authorized by God in 1 Corinthians 7:2) these factors, in conjunction with becoming one flesh (and God reveals where that happens in 1 Corinthians 6:16), are the sole determinants of what an approved marriage is. Signing a document or celebrating
a civil marriage does not make any couple fornicators, there is no sin against their bodies, the TWO are not one body.  What single step or procedure would have put an end to Herod and Herodias’ sinful marriage, legal action alone or termination of the physical relation alone? There is no marriage without the physical relation. What the Spirit revealed and recorded by inspiration is different from human laws and, though not palatable to many, they contradict each other because when non-inspired men invented their protocols all around the world at different times, they ignored and did not take into account what God had already said on the God -given institution, yes, they came up with something new, a different doctrine not received from nor inspired by the Holy Spirit, but supposedly by the authority of God.They established their own foreign- to -revelation regulations. Romans 10:3 So, marriage according to God's word is not marriage according to human laws.

So, the binding and the loosing is done via God’s inspired, living and active law (when conditions are met) NOT via any pre or post ever- evolving national protocol.

So, there is no binding before Divine conditions are met and there is no releasing without the cause of fornication (Divine condition), whatever pre or post human protocols you may add or include.

Written by: Arcenio Archibold

email: novato4all@yahoo.com

Cell: 66066185---

tel: 7602566

Religión y Fe

Religión y Fe

Por favor, no os engañéis, cualquiera que fuere tu llamada fe o religión, Dios te sigue mandando LO MISMO, Dios no exime ni excusa a nadie de obedecer alguna o algunas verdades por estar en alguna religión o profesar alguna fe. La palabra de Dios juzga (Juan 12:48), discierne (del griego κριτικος-kritikos) los pensamientos y las intenciones del corazón. Hebreos 4:12

La verdad de Dios es para todo hombre en todo lugar. Hechos 17:30-31 No hay eso de libertad de expresión, Dios manda hablar lo que Él dice (1 Pedro 4:11) y manda a todos hablar esa misma cosa, la verdad. 1 Corintios 1:10 Rechazar, ignorar y oponerse a la verdad es auto destructivo. Romanos 1:18; 2:3

así que, los que piensan que alguna palabra de Cristo no es para ellos, por ser de cierta religión o fe, ¡se engañan a sí mismos!

Recuerde: La verdad no respeta la mentira, al contrario, la condena.

IS GOD AGAINST GOD?

Bound by God’s Inspired and Universal Law

As soon as we place our trust in human’s non-inspired words and not IN God’s inspired words, we are no longer walking by faith.

Most people profess to believe that marriage is a divine institution, but it is only their professed understanding, because they deny it in practice. God has one inspired law regarding marriage that is applicable to all mankind of all time and in all countries and civilizations, so all christians can obey 1 Corinthians 1:10. No doctrine of Christ differs from time to time or culture to culture. Civil law ignores and despises God’s decree on marriage in Genesis 2:24 and proclaims that people are married before and without complying with this truth, Acts 5:29. Believing that civil marriage (evolving human procedure) is the divine institution found in Genesis 2:24; Matthew 19:4-6, evidences a lack of faith in the scriptures.

Does unlimited authority reside in the community or society? 1 Peter 4:11; Matthew 28:18;1 Corinthians 11:3 Who established Christ’s authority? Whose decree is found in Genesis 2:24; Matthew 19:4-6 Did God authorize any man in any society or government to change or redefine the God- inspired what and how found in Genesis 2:24; Matthew 19:4-6 and 1 Corinthians 7:2? So, is marriage a divine institution? Notice, I did not say civil marriage, (the man-made procedure that ignores and despises the word of God). The church is a divine institution, God built it and revealed, from the beginning, the how to enter or be added to the church, it was explicitly regulated by God; likewise, marriage is a divine institution, and God established by decree the how two become one flesh, it was explicitly regulated by God. 1 Corinthians 6:16; 7:2; Matthew 19:5

Approved marriage and approved putting away coincide with God’s joining (binding) and releasing one. Marrying a put away coincides with commits adultery.   

Can we marry and put away against God’s authority (via his inspired word)? And it is real, no problem. How can we marry against God’s authority (via his inspired word)?

Living together with the intent or commitment to be one flesh for life without both being single is against God’s authority via his inspired word (leave father and mother implies they are single). God does no joining here, not due to the absence of any civil law protocol, but because of the individuals involved, they are not authorized (own man- own woman, not another’s) 1Corinthians 7:2. There is no binding without compliance with inspired conditions, even if you add a million human law protocols, it remains “πορνεια”, by what law? Civil law? NO, but by the inspired law of Christ. “πορνεια” has nothing whatsoever to do with subjection to civil laws, “πορνεια” IS NOT INSUBORDINATION TO Romans 131-5, they can live in peace and sweet harmony forever (most people think this is a blessing, apparent dignity). Do you believe that Herod and Herodias and the other fornicator of 1 Corinthians 5 were guilty of insubordination to civil authorities or laws?

How can we put away against God’s authority (via his inspired word)?

Sundering the physical relationship without the cause of fornication.  God does no loosing here, not due to the absence of any civil law protocol, but because of the absence of the cause. There is no releasing without compliance with inspired conditions, even if you add a million human law protocols, as soon as the physical relation is sundered, there is sin, the putting away has already occurred, there is no second putting away after the physical marriage has ended, no post-civil law procedure can make “legal” an illegal (sinful) action in nature.

So, the binding and the loosing is done via God’s inspired, living and active law (when conditions are met) NOT via any pre or post ever- evolving national protocol.

Assuming you really believe that civil laws are God’s will and that man can marry and sunder a marriage against God’s will, the irrefutable conclusion is that man can marry and sunder a marriage against civil laws.

Can we marry and put away against God’s authority (via civil government)? And it is real, no problem! How can we marry against God’s authority (via civil government)?

­­­­­­­­­­____________________________________________________________________________________.

How can we put away against God’s authority (via civil government)?

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­____________________________________________________________________________________.

How do you decide which illegal relationships are marriages and which ones are not?

Mental marriage and Mental divorce

Your doctrine on marriage and divorce is self-defeating and highly inconsistent.

Most people profess to believe that marriage is a divine institution, but it is only their professed understanding, because they deny it in practice. First, there is no scriptural record or history of “MARRIAGE OFFICIANTS”. God instituted marriage and many like to say that civil governments redefined and re-instituted marriage. So we have two God instituted entities, which one was first, governments or the universal God inspired procedure recorded in Genesis 2:24? Would anyone reasonably affirm that the procedure did not exist before civil governments? God has one inspired law regarding marriage that is applicable to all mankind of all time and in all countries and civilizations, so all christians can obey 1 Corinthians 1:10. No doctrine of Christ differs from time to time or culture to culture.

On the other hand, most people erroneously apply Genesis 2:24 retroactively to Adam and Eve’s marriage, when it is evident that they did not have a biological father and mother to leave and they were not under the God given regulation of becoming one flesh in sexual intercourse, THEY WERE ALREADY ONE FLESH, “This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh”, God is wise!

So, Genesis set the criteria for “a man” thereafter to enter in the God given marriage covenant. So, the question is: what is happening when a man leaves his father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife; and the two shall become one flesh? THEY ARE MARRYING! Then God the Son assures us of those who obey or go through this divine and inspired declaration that “ they are no longer two, but one. God has joined them together, so no one should separate them.” Who joined them together? When did God join them? How did God join them? Through what agency? God’s inspired law, the same law that binds a woman to her husband while he is living, the only law that says she is guilty of adultery if she becomes one with another while her husband is living. Romans 7:2; 1 Corinthians 7:39:Ephesians 5:24

Civil law marriage (human non-inspired procedure) exists before and without the factual marriage God revealed in Genesis 2:24, God has joined nothing at that point, they are not ONE FLESH IN ANY SENSE, they are not married as revealed in the scripture ( I call it mental marriage). Anyone who separates the marrying from the sex or becoming one flesh, is arguing for a couple being able to live in adultery without a single act of physical intercourse. God said that marriage is “two becoming one flesh”; civil marriage procedure ignores, despises and is against revelation when it excludes “becoming one flesh” as denominational plan of salvation is against and ignores and despises God’s revealed plan of salvation when it excludes baptism.

Reason for yourself!

Is is pure nonsense to say that marriage and putting away exist without God’s approval and at the same time say that marriage and putting away cannot exist without the State approval. it is nonsense to say that you can marry or put away ignoring God’s revealed words and at the same time say that you cannot marry or put away without the state sanction.. There is no legal way to do something illegal or should I say there is no legal procedure to sin, there is no legal procedure to break God’s law, that is self contradictory and self defeating. 1 John 3:4 “ Everyone who sins breaks God's law, because sin is the same as breaking God's law.”

Civil law ignores God’s decree on marriage in Genesis 2:24 and proclaims people are married before and without complying with this truth. Acts 5:29

to believe that civil marriage is a divine institution evidences a lack of faith in Genesis 2:24; Matthew 19:4-6

They call it marriage and divorce.

They call it MARRIAGE and DIVORCE, something that can be done ONLY VIA CIVIL GOVERNMENTS. And they are right, because marriage (the divine institution) happily existed before governments, man made laws and procedures.

Marriage (the divine institution) existed before marriage officiants, before the existence of paper, civil governments, before the Jews, before the church, and God himself in the flesh confirmed and ratified what marriage is and ever was in Matthew 19:4-6

They call it MARRIAGE, even if it is unapproved and not according to Christ’s inspired law. Can we call it marriage, even if it is not according to “Christ” uninspired law via civil governments? Absolutely!

Can we marry and put away against God’s authority(via his inspired word)? And it is real, no problem.

Can we marry and put away against God’s authority (via civil government)? And it is real, no problem!

There is no legal procedure to break God’s law( to commit sin, illegality 1 John 3:4 ), God nowhere authorized anyone to break his law(sin, put away) via any exclusive procedure or agent.

It is self defeating and contradictory to conclude that we have to obey God(via civil laws) to live in adultery against God’s will. Obey God to sin against God is not Christ’s doctrine. Is God against God?

I call it “mental separation,” because it involves something that happens AFTER the actual separation(sin) has occurred. When do you believe the actual sin occurs when they suspend sexual duties and cohabitation or when the paper works are finished? … When lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. 1Corinthians 7:3-5 So, if there is already sin when one party departs, is there another sin when paper works are finished? What sin is that, if separation, the actual putting away has already occurred? 1Corinthians 7:10-11 The putting away ALWAYS occurs before the paperwork, unless the couple agrees to live happily as on honey moon season, only until the paperwork process is over, and of course, they do not sin if they reconcile before o without paperwork.

There is no white lie, all lies are harmful and of the devil. Why should I believe or pretend to believe a lie? As soon as we place our trust in human’s non-inspired words and not IN God’s inspired words, we are no longer walking by faith.

Can Man Sunder A Marriage Against God’s Will?

Can God sunder a civil marriage against State law?